What is “the closet”? Clearly a metaphor, but for what? What essential reality does it point toward? To some the answer seems immediately clear: it’s a way of saying whether someone is open about their “true” sexuality.
However, a proper and reliable use of the metaphor requires not only that we know the individual’s “true” sexuality but also that this information is even knowable in any objective sense, in other words that it necessarily has the capacity for conforming in some objective way to the standard epistemological categories for what we call sexuality.
But this raises a further question: What are the criteria for establishing the “truth” of sexual identity? What is the epistemological criteria for determining whether an individual “fits” a certain standard category? If it is not possible to establish sexual identity without the individual’s consent then we can conclude that the criteria is subjective in nature, i.e. the very categories of sexual identity are themselves subjective because the criteria for their application is contingent upon the agreement of the individual. The subjectivization of epistemological criteria implies the subjectivization of the categories.
And this raises a subsequent issue: If determination of sexual identity is subjective then the idea of sexual orientation as something objectively distinct from subjective sexual identity is rendered dubious. In modern discourse we tend to preference the objective and, since “orientation” is often considered objective whereas “identity” is considered subjective, the latter is held in abeyance to the former’s supposedly greater truth. But if we were to acknowledge both the subjectivity as well as the complete and non-subsidiary validity of sexual identity then we would not tolerate the idea of sexual orientation as something innately “more true” and hence the objectivity of identity (in the sense of truth) would merge with and become indistinguishable from the objectivity of orientation.
All well and fine you say, but the critics will simply avoid all this by clinging to the idea that, well, all this is basically false. That is, what if it’s simply not the case that the criteria for establishing categorization is largely if not entirely subjective?
In my opinion, the key at this point in the argument has to do with language and its social use. Simply put, if the individual chooses to reject the standard linguistic or categorical uses (labels) then under whose authority do these very labels or words obtain an absolute, authoritative character (over the will of the individual)? We can see that the issue is not really about science or empirical reality. Nobody is rejecting reality or science. What we do know is that the empirical world is diverse and that everyone is different. We also know that words, like ideas, have the power to group (mentally but not actually) things together based on predication. The question is to what extent these words or ideas can be said to obtain to an objective, transcendent, or absolute reality independent of the will of the individual (or group for that matter) to use them. In my mind, the extent is minimal. Why? Because linguistic usage by its very nature IS social. That is, it occurs according to a pattern of social consent and adoption. Therefore, the ability and actuality of socio-linguistic objection or consent, being not merely the vehicle but the progenitor and sustainer of the semantical references of words, constitutes in itself support for the subjective relativity of labels because those labels obtain their linguistic references according to wider social patterns in the first place.
To put it simply, social objection to common linguistic usage is just another aspect of the entire social phenomena which establishes and validates that usage. Therefore, the attempt on behalf of the latter entire phenomena to suppress the former simply constitutes the mobilization of a collective power structure against the will of the individual. Maybe this mobilization has its practical uses, but that is not an argument for its logical necessity.
But might not there remain one final objection: What about empirical objectivity? Aren’t words also capable of referencing objective, empirical facts beyond their social aspects?
My response to this is, yes, many words do refer to facts. The word “stone” may refer to this stone right before me. Thus, there are some cases in which usage attains to a kind of “scientific” or objective character. But once words enter into social discourse this objectivity becomes relatively elusive. It may be possible for the purposes of social-scientific experimentation to place a group of individuals in a laboratory setting and assign objective labels to individuals based on behavior: for instance, Type I, Type II, etc. I of course do not dispute the possibility of objective science. But this is not the way the words and labels work in everyday social contexts wherein they function within the often devious subtexts of power and ulterior motive. Every time we consider the actual function of such labels we see that they are formed and operate within and in relation to social groups or communities with basically political aims. This is not bad, but it is artificial in the sense that it is social and not strictly empirical in character.